According to clinical studies, finasteride generally works primarily on the vertex, much less well on the midscalp, and not much at all on the front of the head. I’ve seen suggestions that this might be so because the processes that result in frontal hair loss are different than those at work in the crown. (That is, perhaps it’s something other than DHT, or in addition to DHT, that drives hair loss in the frontal and midscalp portions of the head.) Do you think there’s anything to this theory?
From Wikipedia — “in modern science the term ‘theory’, or ‘scientific theory’ is generally understood to refer to a proposed explanation of empirical phenomena, made in a way consistent with scientific method.”
Unfortunately, there really isn’t a scientific theory to explain the difference in hair loss in the frontal region and crown of mens’ scalps. Your hypotheses, which are theories that are not considered to have been satisfactorily tested or proven, may have some merit… but I do not know for sure.
In the end, it is genetics that cause male pattern baldness. That much we know. That theory is solid. At this point, I do not know why DHT (for those men who have the genes) affects mostly the crown. For that matter, I do not know why the back of the scalp in men are always spared from balding. Maybe there are other hormones involved.