I have heard much debate amongst doctors about whether the drug finasteride is evenly distributed in the pill Proscar. Some say that by the very nature of the pharmaceutical manufacturing process it would be almost impossible for it NOT to be evenly distributed, but others say that it is not. Merck (understandably) will not comment since they want their customers paying more for Propecia.
If it’s not, that means on day 1, one might get all 5 mg, and then the next 4 days get 0 mg.
Can you explain the answer to this? Do you know the inherent nature of the pill manufacturing process so as to shed some light on this question?
There is always the chance that the Proscar pill, when divided into four, will have one or more of the pieces contain different amounts of the drug. We have seen patients on finasteride (taken as 1/4 of the Proscar) have results as would be expected from taking the Propecia. Although there is no way to verify the exact drug dose in each section of the pill by weight, from a results point of view, it seems to indicate that the drug is pretty much evenly distributed in the Proscar pill.