In prior posts here, you have stated that 50% of men experience some degree of balding in their lifetime. Yet, when looking around at older men, that number seems much higher than that! Men like Ronald Reagan stand out precisely because so few men still have ALL their hair in old age. Reagan’s hair would not be so striking if he was just part of the 50% who never lose hair. I am just wondering what that 50% stat is based on.
I believe that 50% is loosely based on observations by doctors and is quoted widely (even by me). I am not aware of any specific studies that looked at men in a certain age group and categorized them on a hair loss scale. So I guess the percentage could be 42%, 51%, 69%, 71%, etc….
On a final note we generally consider 50% of men go through some degree of genetic, patterned balding. This does not account for age related general hair loss, where there is no pattern.