Dear Dr Rassman,
Thank you for providing a top quality website and forum for hair loss information. I have personally gained a lot of insight from your websites.
I have a question that I can’t seem to find a definitive answer even from our family doctor. My elder brother has been diagnosed with BPH and is also a hair loss sufferer. He has been the prescribed 5mg Proscar which he has been taking for the past 1 year. However, he is also very eager in treating his hairloss. The Merck’s website suggested 1 mg to be the optimal for hair loss. Optimal would be translated in my sense to be ‘the best’ dose for hairloss. But because of his BPH condition, he has to take the 5mg dose. Would this mean he is treating his hair loss in a not ‘optimal’ dose but ideal dose for his BPH?
Is there a need to balance the dose in this scenario? I have not seen a validated testimonial of higher hair count using higher dose in the web (although some independent minor reports here and there claimed so). But according to papers, 5 mg does indeed have slightly higher haircount than 1 mg, just not by a lot. So would that mean 5 mg is also as good to treat the hair loss for my brother?
Thanks a million for your time Dr.
5mg of finasteride is as good as 1mg for the treatment of hair loss. So, yes… if he is taking 5mg for his BPH, that will be enough to treat his balding.